From this text it is claimed that God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past to the fathers by the prophets, and, in the commencement of the gospel day, by Jesus and His apostles, has hereby solemnly promised never to communicate anything more to man in that way. Therefore all prophesying after this date must be false. This, it is said, closes the canon of inspiration. If so, why did John write his gospel after his return from Patmos to Ephesus? In doing so did he add to the words of the prophecy of that book written in the isle of Patmos? It is evident, from the text, that the caution against adding to, or taking from, refers not to the Bible as we have the volume compiled, but to the separate book of Revelation, as it came from the hand of the apostle. Yet no man has a right to add to, or subtract from, any other book written by inspiration of God. Did John, in writing the book of Revelation, add anything to the book of Daniel's prophecy? Not at all. A prophet …
"God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,"
EGW quotes Hebrews 1:1 directly and uses it as a basis for her argument against the cessation of prophecy. This is an explicit allusion.